Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)

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Category: Emergency Medicine--->Orthopaedic Emergencies
Page: 1

Question 1# Print Question

Regarding Salter-Harris type I growth plate injuries, which ONE of the following statements is FALSE?

A. The epiphysis separates completely from the metaphysis
B. There is tenderness over the growth plate on examination but no radiological abnormality
C. A displaced epiphysis in type I injury is usually difficult to reduce
D. Type I injuries are caused by shearing and avulsion forces compared with type V injuries, which are caused by axial compression

Question 2# Print Question

Regarding physeal (growth plate) injuries in children, which ONE of the following statements is INCORRECT?

A. The most common site for the Salter-Harris type III fracture is the distal end of the tibia
B. Fractures of the lateral condyle of the humerus can be treated conservatively
C. Injuries to the growth plate occur in one-third of all bony injuries in children
D. Avascular necrosis of the epiphysis is a complication

Question 3# Print Question

Regarding a diagnosis of nerve injuries when assessing a child with a supracondylar fracture of the humerus, all of the following statements are correct EXCEPT:

A. Inability to flex the distal interphalangeal joint of the index finger and the interphalangeal joint of the thumb indicates injury to the anterior interosseous branch of the median nerve
B. If the child is able to fully extend the thumb it excludes a radial nerve injury
C. If the child is able to fully abduct all fingers it excludes an ulnar nerve injury
D. Inability to make a fist is usually secondary to pain and should not be considered as a median nerve injury

Question 4# Print Question

Regarding emergency department (ED) management of a supracondylar humeral fracture in a child, which ONE of the following is the MOST appropriate step?

A. Immobilization of the elbow with flexion >90 degrees in all patients
B. Immediate manipulation in the operating theatre (OT) if the radial pulse is lost during hyperflexion of the elbow for immobilization
C. Referral for admission for relevant Gartland type 2 and all type 3 fractures
D. Immobilization in flexion when the elbow is significantly swollen

Question 5# Print Question

Regarding vascular compromise associated with supracondylar fracture, which ONE of the following statements is INCORRECT?

A. If the hand is pulseless, cool and pale, the fracture should be reduced immediately in the ED
B. Multiple attempts at reduction in the ED is associated with increased risk of vascular damage
C. If the hand is pulseless but remains warm and pink, the fracture should be splinted to prevent further vascular compromise until urgent reduction is done in the OT
D. Vascular surgeons should be alerted if the hand is pulseless, cool and pale

Category: Emergency Medicine--->Orthopaedic Emergencies
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