A 52-year-old man is seen in the hypertension clinic. He was diagnosed around three months ago and started on ramipril. This has been titrated up to 10mg od but his blood pressure remains around 156/92 mmHg.
What is the most appopriate next step in management?
Correct Answer D: Calcium channel blockers are now preferred to thiazides in the treatment of hypertension.
The 2011 NICE guidelines reflected the changing evidence base supporting the use of calcium channel blockers in preference to thiazide-type diuretics in the management of hypertension.
Hypertension diagnosis and management:
NICE published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2011. Some of the key changes include:
Blood pressure classification: This becomes relevant later in some of the management decisions that NICE advocate.
Diagnosing hypertension:
If a BP reading is >= 140 / 90 mmHg patients should be offered ABPM to confirm the diagnosis. Patients with a BP reading of >= 180/110 mmHg should be considered for immediate treatment.
Ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM):
Home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM):
Managing hypertension:
ABPM/HBPM >= 135/85 mmHg (i.e. stage 1 hypertension):
ABPM/HBPM >= 150/95 mmHg (i.e. stage 2 hypertension):
For patients < 40 years consider specialist referral to exclude secondary causes.
Step 1 treatment:
Step 2 treatment:
Step 3 treatment:
Step 4 treatment:
If BP still not controlled seek specialist advice.
New drugs:
Direct renin inhibitors:
A 65-year-old man is found to have an ejection systolic murmur and narrow pulse pressure on examination. He has experienced no chest pain, breathlessness or syncope. An echo confirms aortic stenosis and shows an aortic valve gradient of 40 mmHg.
How should this patient be managed?
Correct Answer E: Aortic stenosis management: Aortic Valve Replacement (AVR) if symptomatic, otherwise cut-off is gradient of 50 mmHg.
No action should be taken at present as he is currently asymptomatic. If the aortic valve gradient > 50 mmHg or there is evidence of significant left ventricular dysfunction then surgery is sometimes considered in selected asymptomatic patients.
Aortic stenosis: Features of severe aortic stenosis:
Causes of aortic stenosis:
Management:
A 30-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a one-day history of central chest pain. The pain is described as severe, non-radiating and eases on expiration. Clinical examination of her cardiorespiratory system is unremarkable other than a heart rate of 96 / min. An ECG shows widespread ST elevation in the anterior, inferior and lateral leads. Bloods show the following: Full blood count Normal Urea and electrolystes Normal Troponin I 0.8 ng/mL (< 0.2 ng/mL).
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer D: A modest rise in troponin is seen in around one-third of patients with acute pericarditis.
Pericarditis:
Pericarditis is one of the differentials of any patient presenting with chest pain.
Features:
Causes:
ECG changes:
A 58-year-old man with no past medical history of note is admitted to hospital with crushing central chest pain. ECG on arrival shows anterior ST elevation and he is subsequently thrombolyzed with a good resolution of symptoms and ECG changes.
Two months following discharge from hospital, which combination of drugs should he be taking?
Correct Answer A: The current guidance is to continue clopidogrel for 4 weeks following a ST-elevation myocardial infarction.
Myocardial infarction: secondary prevention:
NICE produced guidelines on the management of patients following a myocardial infarction (MI) in 2007. Some key points are listed below.
All patients should be offered the following drugs:
Clopidogrel:
Aldosterone antagonists:
*This can be calculated using scoring systems such as GRACE
A 71-year-old man is reviewed in the coronary care unit. He was admitted with an anterior ST elevation myocardial infarction and received thrombolysis with alteplase. Ninety minutes following this an ECG shows a 30-40% resolution in the ST elevation.
What is the most appropriate management?
Correct Answer A:
Myocardial infarction: management: A number of studies over the past 10 years have provided an evidence for the management of STelevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) In the absence of contraindications, all patients should be given:
NICE suggest the following in terms of oxygen therapy:
Only offer supplemental oxygen to:
Primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) has emerged as the gold-standard treatment for STEMI but is not available in all centres. Thrombolysis should be performed in patients without access to primary PCI
With regards to thrombolysis:
An ECG should be performed 90 minutes following thrombolysis to assess whether there has been a greater than 50% resolution in the ST elevation: