Which one of the following is least recognized as a cause of erythroderma in the UK?
Correct Answer C: Erythroderma is a term used when more than 95% of the skin is involved in a rash of any kind.
Causes of erythroderma:
Erythrodermic psoriasis:
Erythrodermic psoriasis in an older man.
Acute unstable erythrodermic psoriasis.
Erythrodermic psoriasis.
A patient develops an eczematous, weeping rash on his wrist following the purchase of a new watch. In the Gell and Coombs classification of hypersensitivity reactions this is an example of a:
Correct Answer D: This patient has allergic contact dermatitis, which is commonly precipitated by nickel.
Hypersensitivity:
The Gell and Coombs classification divides hypersensitivity reactions into 4 types:
Type I - Anaphylactic:
Type II - Cell bound:
Type III - Immune complex:
Type IV - Delayed hypersensitivity:
In recent times a further category has been added:
Type V - Stimulated hypersensitivity:
A 72-year-old woman who is known to have type 2 diabetes mellitus and heart failure is reviewed. One week ago she was treated with oral flucloxacillin and penicillin V for a right lower limb cellulitis. Unfortunately there has been no response to treatment.
What is the most appropriate next line antibiotic?
Correct Answer C:
Cellulitis: management:
A 14-year-old male is reviewed due to a patch of scaling and hair loss on the right side of his head. A skin scraping is sent which confirms a diagnosis of tinea capitis.
Which organism is most likely to be responsible?
Correct Answer A:
Tinea:
Tinea is a term given to dermatophyte fungal infections. Three main types of infection are described depending on what part of the body is infected:
Tinea capitis (scalp ringworm):
Tinea corporis:
Tinea pedis (athlete's foot):
*lesions due to Trichophyton species do not readily fluoresce under Wood's lamp
Tinea capitis caused by Microsporum canis.
Tinea corporis in a patient on systemic corticosteroids.
Tinea pedis spreading to the dorsum of the foot.
A 67-year-old man with recurrent actinic keratoses on his scalp is reviewed.
Which one of the following is not a treatment option for the management of this condition?
Correct Answer B: Actinic, or solar, keratoses (AK) is a common premalignant skin lesion that develops as a consequence of chronic sun exposure.
Actinic keratoses Features:
Management options include:
Actinic Keratoses.
Lichenoid Actinic Keratoses.
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