Which of the following skin conditions associated with malignancy are not correctly paired?
Correct Answer B: Necrolytic migratory erythema is associated with glucagonomas.
Skin disorders associated with malignancy
Paraneoplastic syndromes associated with internal malignancies:
A 30-year-old man presents with painful, purple coloured lesions on his shins. Some of these lesions have started to heal and no evidence of scarring is seen. These have been present for the past 2 weeks. There is no past medical history of note and he takes no regular medications.
What is the most useful next investigation?
Correct Answer E: The likely diagnosis here is erythema nodosum (EN). All these tests may have a place but a chest xray is important as it helps exclude sarcoidosis and tuberculosis, two important cause of EN.
Erythema nodosum Overview:
Causes:
A 36-year-old female with a history of ulcerative colitis is diagnosed as having pyoderma gangrenosum. She presented 4 days ago with a 1 cm lesion on her right shin which rapidly ulcerated and is now painful.
What is the most appropriate management?
Correct Answer B: Topical therapy does have a role in pyoderma gangrenosum and it may seem intuitive to try this first before moving on to systemic treatment. However, pyoderma gangrenosum has the potential to evolve rapidly and for this reason oral prednisolone is usually given as initial treatment. For a review see BMJ 2006;333:181-184
Pyoderma gangrenosum
Features:
Causes*:
Management:
A man presents with an area of dermatitis on his left wrist. He thinks he may be allergic to nickel.
Which one of the following is the best test to investigate this possibility?
Correct Answer A:
Allergy tests:
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