A 45-year-old man is admitted due to haematemesis. He drinks 120 units of alcohol a week.
When is the peak incidence of seizures following alcohol withdrawal?
Correct Answer E:
Alcohol withdrawal:
Mechanism:
Features:
Management:
Which of the following conditions is least associated with obsessive compulsive disorder?
Correct Answer E: Obsessive Compulsive Disorder OCD: Pathophysiology:
Associations:
A 54-year-old man with a history of depression presents for review. He was started on fluoxetine eight weeks ago and is now requesting to stop his medication as he feels so well.
What should be recommended regarding his treatment?
Correct Answer D: This greatly reduces the risk of relapse. Patients should be reassured that antidepressants are not addictive.
Depression: selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors:
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are considered first-line treatment for the majority of patients with depression.
Adverse effects:
Interactions:
Following the initiation of antidepressant therapy patients should normally be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks.
For patients under the age of 30 years or at increased risk of suicide they should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient makes a good response to antidepressant therapy they should continue on treatment for at least 6 months after remission as this reduces the risk of relapse.
When stopping a SSRI the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period (this is not necessary with fluoxetine). Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms.
Discontinuation symptoms:
Which one of the following is not associated with a poor prognosis in schizophrenia?
Correct Answer A: A gradual, rather than acute, onset is associated with a poor prognosis.
Schizophrenia: prognostic indicators:
Factors associated with poor prognosis:
A 24-year-old female is reviewed following a course of cognitive behaviour therapy for bulimia. She feels there has been no improvement in her condition and is interested in trying pharmacological treatments.
Which one of the following is most suitable?
Correct Answer E: Bulimia nervosa is a type of eating disorder characterized by episodes of binge eating followed by intentional vomiting.
Bulimia nervosa Management: