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Category: Cardiology--->Ischaemic heart disease
Page: 15

Question 71# Print Question

A 66-year-old man with stable angina at low exertion level was investigated with coronary angiography that showed an isolated significant lesion (70%) of the ostium and mid-portion of the left main coronary artery in the presence of a normal left ventricular function.

What is the correct statement regarding the recommended approach?

A. Heart team discussion between the interventional cardiologist and the cardiac surgeon to select the best treatment option is the recommended approach
B. Coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) is the recommended approach for all patients with left main disease.
C. PCI is the recommended approach for all patients with left main disease
D. A calculation of the Society of Thoracic Surgeons (STS) and SYNTAX (Synergy between PCI with TAXUS and Cardiac Surgery) scores is not recommended at this stage
E. The choice of treatment is independent of the clinical presentations (stable angina or acute coronary syndromes [ACSs])


Question 72# Print Question

A 58-year-old man with coronary artery disease (CAD) and severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) with forced expiratory volume in the first second of expiration (FEV1 )/forced vital capacity <0.74 with FEV1 <40% predicted had stenting of the mid-left anterior descending artery (LAD) 10 months prior to admission with a 3.0 mm × 24 mm bare metal stent (BMS). He presents now with recurrent angina despite intensified medical treatment, and coronary angiography reveals a severe and diffuse in-stent restenosis (ISR).

A reasonable next therapeutic option would be:

A. Plain balloon angioplasty
B. Coronary artery bypass surgery
C. Drug-eluting stent (DES) implantation (stent-in-stent)
D. Medical therapy
E. Brachytherapy


Question 73# Print Question

A 66-year-old man had in the last few months sporadic episodes of chest pain on exertion. His cardiovascular (CV) risk factors included diabetes, hypertension, and hypercholesterolemia. He had no other comorbidity. Coronary angiography revealed a lesion of 60% of the RCA in addition to multiple nonsignificant plaques affecting the three coronary arteries. The fractional flow reserve (FFR) of the RCA (0.0.85) and LVEF were normal.

What is the recommended treatment for this patient?

A. CABG is the first recommended approach as the risk of surgical procedure is low
B. PCI is the first recommended approach as the SYNTAX score is low
C. Perform an additional imaging (myocardial perfusion scan or magnetic resonance [MR] perfusion scan) in addition to optimal medical management
D. Guideline-directed medical therapy is the first recommended approach
E. Repeat coronary angiography after 6 months to exclude disease progression in addition to optimal medical management


Question 74# Print Question

A 58-year-old male smoker treated for hypertension complained about chest pain on exertion in the preceding 4 weeks. To investigate the clinical symptoms, you performed a stress perfusion cardiac magnetic resonance showing hypoperfusion during IV administration of adenosine.

Which area of the myocardium is more vulnerable to hypoperfusion?

A. Subepicardium
B. Mid-myocardium
C. Subendocardium
D. Pericardium
E. All of the above


Question 75# Print Question

A 73-year-old man presents to the emergency room with severe mid-sternal chest discomfort. He appears anxious and in distress. His heart rate is 66 bpm, blood pressure is 92/68 mmHg, and respiratory rate is 14. There is marked jugular venous distention. Cardiac auscultation is unremarkable and the lungs are clear. ECG reveals 2-mm ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. The most likely diagnosis is:

A. Acute pericarditis
B. Acute aortic dissection
C. Pneumothorax
D. Inferior wall myocardial infarction (MI) with right ventricular infarction
E. Pneumonia




Category: Cardiology--->Ischaemic heart disease
Page: 15 of 26