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Category: Critical Care Medicine-Neurologic Disorders--->Neuro Monitoring and Diagnostic Modalities
Page: 2

Question 6#Print Question

A 48-year-old male with no past medical history was lifting weights at the gym when he felt a “pop” in the back of his head immediately followed by a 10/10 holocephalic headache. He was nauseated and had one episode of emesis but retained normal consciousness. He was brought to the emergency department via EMS, and on arrival his vitals were within normal limits. His neurologic examination was normal with the exception of nuchal rigidity. A head CT was completed shortly after arrival. The only abnormalities demonstrated on the head CT are shown in the figure that follows. A CTA was completed which was negative for an aneurysm or vascular malformation.

Which of the following is consistent with findings presented?

a. The location of the subarachnoid hemorrhage is more likely associated with an aneurysm than basilar subarachnoid hemorrhage
b. This particular subarachnoid hemorrhage most commonly results in hydrocephalus due to obstruction of the foramen of Magendie and Luschka
c. The location of this subarachnoid hemorrhage is thought to be due to venous hemorrhage rather than arterial hemorrhage
d. Because the CT angiogram was negative, there is no need for a digital subtraction angiogram




Category: Critical Care Medicine-Neurologic Disorders--->Neuro Monitoring and Diagnostic Modalities
Page: 2 of 2