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Category: Emergency Medicine--->Obstetric and Gynaecological Emergencies
Page: 2

Question 6# Print Question

Regarding anti-D prophylaxis during first trimester pregnancy in a Rh negative female, which ONE of the following is the MOST CORRECT?

A. High-level evidence exists to support the use of anti-D for a threatened miscarriage
B. An unruptured ectopic pregnancy in the first trimester is regarded as a sensitizing event requiring anti-D
C. Anti-D is not indicated after 72 hours of a sensitizing event
D. Anti-D should be given every 3 weeks for ongoing bleeding


Question 7# Print Question

Regarding administration of anti-D (RhIG) after the first trimester of pregnancy in Rh negative females, which ONE of the following is TRUE

A. Anti-D is only indicated in blunt abdominal trauma when there is evidence of antepartum haemorrhage or fetal distress
B. Administration of 625 IU is sufficient after all sensitizing events
C. The Australian Rh immunoglobin can be administered via the intramuscular (IM) or IV route
D. If a Kleihauer test is performed, maternal venous blood should be collected in an EDTA® tube


Question 8# Print Question

Regarding preeclampsia in pregnancy, which ONE of the following is TRUE?

A. The diagnostic criteria are hypertension with a blood pressure of ≥140/90 mmHg associated with the presence of proteinuria and pathologic oedema after 20 weeks’ gestation
B. Proteinuria 1+ on urine dipstick usually correlates with 300 mg of protein on a 24-hour urine specimen
C. Korotkoff phase IV (muffling of sound) should be used to measure diastolic blood pressure (BP)
D. The use of antihypertensive agents in mild– moderate preeclampsia improves maternal and fetal outcome


Question 9# Print Question

A 24-year-old female presents to the ED with blurred vision and slight headache. She is 26 weeks pregnant. Her BP is 150/100 mmHg and a urine dipstix shows 1+ protein.

Which ONE of the following is the MOST appropriate?

A. She requires conservative management with admission for BP monitoring
B. She is at low risk of developing eclampsia as her BP is not high enough
C. She requires immediate lowering of her BP with intravenous hydralazine
D. Administration of magnesium sulphate will reduce the rate of development of eclampsia by at least 50%


Question 10# Print Question

A 34-year-old female presents with a new onset generalized tonic–clonic seizure. She is 27 weeks pregnant.

Which ONE of the following is TRUE?

A. Magnesium sulphate is more effective in terminating acute convulsions associated with eclampsia than diazepam
B. Eclampsia is excluded in the absence of hypertension or proteinuria
C. A loading dose of magnesium sulphate 1–2 g should be given intravenously, followed by a maintenance infusion, to prevent further seizures
D. Control of BP is essential in preventing further eclamptic seizures




Category: Emergency Medicine--->Obstetric and Gynaecological Emergencies
Page: 2 of 5