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Category: Cardiology--->Heart Failure
Page: 7

Question 31# Print Question

A 56-year-old man presents to your clinic for follow-up after being discharged from the hospital 6 weeks ago. He underwent a successful primary angioplasty for acute anterior MI; however, his EF is now 40%. He is currently taking simvastatin (Zocor), acetylsalicylic aspirin, clopidogrel bisulfate (Plavix), metoprolol tartrate (Lopressor), and losartan (Cozaar). He states that he cannot afford all of these medications. He would like to know which medications are essential for a longer life.

Which medications should you tell him are essential?

A. All of them
B. All of them except clopidogrel bisulfate
C. All of them except losartan
D. All except clopidogrel bisulfate and losartan


Question 32# Print Question

A 78-year-old woman with congestive heart failure (CHF) (EF, 25%), chronic atrial fibrillation (AFib), gastroesophageal reflux disease, HTN, hyperlipidemia, diabetes, and osteoporosis takes 12 different pills. At the recent senior citizen day at the local church, a nurse told her that she does not need to take digoxin because she is on amiodarone. She wants to eliminate digoxin from her medication regimen, and she wants to know why you put her on it in the first place.

What is your answer?

A. Digoxin improves survival
B. Digoxin reduces hospitalization
C. Digoxin improves contractility
D. Digoxin decreases the volume of distribution of amiodarone
E. Digoxin reduces sympathetic nervous system activity


Question 33# Print Question

Recently, a 43-year-old lawyer received heart transplantation. His hospital course was unremarkable, and he was discharged. He found out from the heart failure nurses that allograft vasculopathy is the leading cause of longterm morbidity and mortality in transplant patients. He wants to know what proven treatments prevent allograft vasculopathy.

Which of the following treatments should you recommend?

A. Annual cardiac catheterization, intravascular ultrasound, and percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI), as needed
B. Annual stress test
C. Biannual stress test
D. Statins
E. No known treatment


Question 34# Print Question

A 72-year-old woman is transferred from another hospital. She was initially admitted with palpitation, diagnosed with AFib, and treated with amiodarone. A transthoracic echocardiogram (TTE) showed an EF of 10% with a regional wall motion abnormality. She underwent cardiac catheterization and was found to have a heavily calcified 80% lesion in the mid–left anterior descending artery (LAD), a 40% lesion in a nondominant circumflex, and an 80% lesion in the posterior descending artery. Her children want to know what you plan to do for her.

What should you recommend? 

A. She has terrible EF and should be on medication only because CABG would be of too high risk
B. She should undergo PCI because she is too high risk for CABG
C. She should undergo CABG because this is the definitive treatment
D. She should have a positron emission tomography (PET) scan to assess the area of viability before proceeding with CABG or PCI


Question 35# Print Question

A 53-year-old woman with a history of CHF presents to the emergency room (ER). She is cool and clammy. She reports being short of breath. Her blood pressure (BP) is 71/40 mmHg, her heart rate (HR) is 110 bpm, and her respiratory rate is 30. She has elevated neck veins and a prominent S3 . Her echocardiogram (ECG) shows sinus tachycardia. She is admitted to the CCU (coronary care unit) with heart failure. A pulmonary artery (PA) catheterization is performed, and her hemodynamics are as follows: right atrial (RA) pressure, 12 mmHg; PA pressure, 62/30 mmHg; cardiac output, 1.9 L/min/m2 ; pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP), 36 mmHg; and systemic vascular resistance (SVR), 2,000 dyne/s/cm5 .

Which of the following is your next step?

A. Start furosemide (Lasix)
B. Start dopamine
C. Insert intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP)
D. Begin dobutamine
E. Start nesiritide




Category: Cardiology--->Heart Failure
Page: 7 of 14