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Category: Cardiology--->Arrythmias
Page: 9

Question 41# Print Question

A patient presents with regular narrow QRS tachycardia. A 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) demonstrates an r' in lead V1 that was not seen on ECG when the patient was in sinus rhythm. An esophageal electrode shows a 1:1 atrial-to-ventricular relationship during tachycardia. The ventriculoatrial (VA) interval is measured as 55 milliseconds.

Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Orthodromic atrioventricular reentrant tachycardia (AVRT)
B. Atrial tachycardia
C. AV nodal reentrant tachycardia (AVNRT)
D. Permanent junctional reciprocating tachycardia (PJRT)


Question 42# Print Question

A 17-year-old patient who is known to have Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome presents with a regular narrow complex tachycardia with a cycle length of 375 milliseconds (160 bpm) that occurred with a sudden onset. You note that there is a 1:1 atrial-to-ventricular relationship and that the RP interval is 100 milliseconds.

The best initial treatment is:

A. IV procainamide
B. atropine
C. vagal maneuvers
D. catheter ablation


Question 43# Print Question

A 25-year-old patient presents with the sudden onset of tachycardia and is found to have a regular narrow QRS tachycardia with a cycle length of 340 milliseconds (176 bpm). An ECG appears to show P waves visible just after each QRS complex. You place an esophageal electrode and confirm a 1:1 atrial-to-ventricular relationship with a VA interval of 110 milliseconds. During the tachycardia, there is spontaneous development of left bundle branch block (LBBB), and a slower tachycardia with a VA interval of 150 milliseconds is now seen.

What is the most likely diagnosis for the second tachycardia?

A. AVNRT
B. Orthodromic AVRT using a right-sided accessory pathway
C. Orthodromic AVRT using a left-sided accessory pathway
D. Ventricular tachycardia (VT) with 1:1 VA conduction


Question 44# Print Question

A 65-year-old man presents after an arrest while eating at a local restaurant. On arrival, paramedics documented ventricular fibrillation (VF), and he was successfully resuscitated. He has a history of myocardial infarction (MI) and congestive heart failure (CHF). Serum electrolytes are remarkable only for mild hypokalemia. MI is ruled out by ECG and serial blood tests of myocardial enzymes. Subsequent evaluation includes cardiac catheterization, which shows severe three-vessel coronary artery disease (CAD) and severe left ventricular (LV) systolic dysfunction. A nuclear myocardial perfusion scan shows a large area of myocardial scar without significant viability in the territory of the left anterior descending coronary artery. The decision is made to treat the CAD medically.

Which of the following is the best management strategy for his arrhythmia?

A. PO amiodarone
B. Implantable cardioverter defibrillator (ICD) implantation if an electrophysiologic (EP) study shows inducible VT or VF
C. ICD implantation
D. β-Blocker medication


Question 45# Print Question

A 55-year-old woman has CAD and moderately severe LV systolic dysfunction (LV ejection fraction, 34%). Routine ambulatory Holter monitoring shows asymptomatic frequent ventricular ectopy with PVCs and occasional runs of nonsustained VT.

Which of the following statements about the management of this patient is true?

A. Implantation of an ICD is indicated
B. Implantation of an ICD is indicated if an EP study shows inducible VT
C. Treatment with amiodarone is indicated, and if the arrhythmia recurs, then an EP study is indicated
D. No treatment is indicated unless the arrhythmia becomes symptomatic




Category: Cardiology--->Arrythmias
Page: 9 of 17